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QUESTION 1
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

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QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

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QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator for an enterprise organization must create and deploy a web application in the private cloud of the organization. The environment consists of two web servers: one application server and one database server. The application stack should be available only to Internet traffic while keeping the database and application server completely secure.
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option lists the different container types available in Cisco UCS Director under Menu Bar > Solutions > VACS Container?
A. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 3 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
B. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 2 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
C. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
D. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
Answer: A

QUESTION 3                         210-250
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?

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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Active Discovery Phase–In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.

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QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 3                                    300-206
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet traceC. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?

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Question No : 1
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Answer: B,E

Question No : 2
When using the CLI command eping, configured for auto-anchor mobility wireless guest access, which type of packet is tested?

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QUESTION 1
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis. You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources. SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session. You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources. A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the configuration?

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Question No : 1
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Explanation:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the 200-105 exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge, RSTP operates at Layer 2.

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C

Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4.

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Question No : 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The 100-105 message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B

Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address.
Those two are not going to change.
For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches… they don’t change anything)
Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1.

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QUESTION 1
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco 210-060 Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text LabelB. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.

When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the 210-060 call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s

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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
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A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Active Discovery Phase–In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the 300-101 PPPoE layer is established.

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Question No : 1
Company X currently uses a Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which has been configured for IP desk phones and Jabber soft phones. Users report however that whenever they are out of the office, a VPN must be set up before their Jabber client can be used. The administrator for Company X has deployed a Collaboration Expressway server at the edge of the network in an attempt to remove the need for VPN when doing voice.
However, devices outside cannot register.
Which two additional steps are needed to complete this deployment? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk has to be set up between the Expressway-C and Cisco UCM.
B. An additional interface must be enabled on the Cisco UCM and placed in the same subnet at the Expressway.
C. The customer firewall must be configured with any rule for the IP address of the external Jabber client.
D. The Expressway server needs a neighbor zone created that points to Cisco UCM.
E. Jabber cannot connect to Cisco UCM unless it is on the same network or a VPN is set up from outside.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 2
When you connect a Cisco VCS Control to Cisco 300-075 Unified Communications Manager by using a SIP trunk, which mechanism do you use to verify that the trunk hasan active connection?

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